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GHIDUL CANDIDATULUI LA EXAMENUL LINGUA LIMBA ENGLEZĂ DE AFACERI
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GHIDUL CANDIDATULUI LA EXAMENUL LINGUA

LIMBA ENGLEZĂ DE

AFACERI

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TESTUL SCRIS

Proba 1- Ascultat

Proba de ascultat constă dintr-un exerciţiu care are în jur de 6 subpuncte. Materialul se ascultă de două ori. Candidaţii au aproximativ 1 minut pentru a citi exerciţiul înainte de a asculta materialul. Numărul maxim de puncte care poate fi acumulat este de 6. Acest exerciţiu poate fi de trei feluri:

Tipul 1: Adevărat sau fals

în cazul acestui tip, trebuie să decideţi dacă propoziţiile date sunt adevărate sau false, în funcţie de materialul ascultat.

Recomandări:

înainte de a asculta materialul, citiţi cu atenţie propoziţiile concentrându-vă asupra cuvintelor cheie. Unele propoziţii au două părţi; ambele părţi trebuie să fie adevărate pentru ca propoziţia să fie adevărată.

la prima ascultare concentraţi-vă doar asupra informaţiilor din propoziţiile date; în materialul ascultat vor fi şi informaţii suplimentare irelevante pentru sarcină. Bazaţi-vă decizia pe ce auziţi, nu pe ceea ce credeţi dvs. despre subiect.

propoziţiile apar în aceeaşi ordine ca şi informaţiile relevante din materialul ascultat.

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la a doua ascultare verificaţi-vă răspunsurile.

Tipul 2: Text cu spaţii de completat

în cazul acestui tip de exerciţiu trebuie să completaţi spaţiile unui text care se referă la materialul ascultat. Numărul de spaţii poate varia de la 5 la 10. Dacă numărul maxim de cuvinte pentru un spaţiu este specificat îrt instrucţiuni nu depăşiţi acest număr.

Recomandări:

scrieţi exact cuvintele pe care le auziţi; acest exerciţiu testează atenţia pe care o puteţi acorda detaliilor.

înainte de a asculta citiţi cu atenţie textul dat şi încercaţi să anticipaţi tipul de informaţie care va trebui completată.

nu vă aşteptaţi să auziţi aceleaşi cuvinte ca şi în textul dat; concentraţi-vă pe sens, nu formă.

spaţiile apar în ordinea în care apare informaţia relevantă în textul ascultat.

pentru a vă verifica, acordaţi atenţie scrierii corecte a cuvintelor din spaţiile respective şf nu depăşiţi numărul maxim de cuvinte pentru un spaţiu, dacă acesta este specificat.

Tipul 3: Alegeţi varianta corectă (A, B, C,...)

în acest tip de exerciţiu trebuie să alegeţi o opţiune (şi numai una) dintr-un număr de variante date, în funcţie de materialul ascultat.

Recomandări:

- înainte de a asculta, citiţi întrebările şi variantele, concentrându-vă asupra întrebărilor şi a cuvintelor cheie.

- în timp ce ascultaţi fiţi conştienţi de faptul că veţi auzi alte cuvinte decât cele din variantele date. Nu alegeţi o variantă doar pentru că apar aceleaşi cuvinte precum în textul ascultat! Deseori veţi constata că în variantele incorecte apar exact aceleaşi cuvinte ca şi în textul ascultat, aceste variante fiind incorecte pentru că nu răspund corect întrebării. Fiţi atenţi la context ş] la întrebarea la care răspundeţi.

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- întrebările apar în ordinea în care sunt tratate în materialul ascultat la a doua ascultare verificaţi-vă răspunsurile.

PROBA 2 - CITIT

Proba de citit constă dintr-un text din care au fost scoase un număr de aproximativ 6 propoziţii. Propoziţiile sunt date la sfârşitul textului, plus o propoziţie care nu se potriveşte în text şi care nu trebuie selectată. Numărul maxim de puncte care poate fi obţinut este de 6. Acest exerciţiu testează înţelegerea organizării textelor.

Recomandări:

acordaţi aproximativ 10-15 minute acestei sarcini. întâi citiţi textul ignorând spaţiile goale pentru a înţelege ideile

principale. când citiţi textul a doua oară, puteţi aplica următoarea strategie:

de fiecare dată când ajungeţi la un spaţiu, citiţi cu atenţie propoziţia dinaintea spaţiului şi cea de după spaţiu pentru a vedea dacă există cel puţin o legătură de sens între propoziţia aleasă de dvs şi text. De fiecare dată când ajungeţi la un spaţiu, luaţi în considerare toate propoziţiile date, nu le eliminaţi, deoarece riscaţi să faceţi greşeli.

propoziţia care este în plus poate fi fie prea generală pentru a se potrivi în text, fie apropiată de altă propoziţie, dar totuşi nepotrivită în text.

pentru a vă verifica, citiţi textul cu propoziţiile completate de dvs. pentru a vedea dacă conexiunile între idei sunt logice.

PROBA 3 - GRAMATICĂ SI VOCABULAR

A treia probă a testului scris testează cunoştinţele dvs. de gramatică şi vocabular. Ea constă în 30 de întrebări, fiecare punctată cu 0,2 puncte, grupate în 4 tipuri de sarcini de lucru, după cum urmează:

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1. un paragraf în care există spaţii libere, numerotate, pe care dvs. trebuie să le completaţi, alegând un cuvânt care să se potrivească în aşa fel, încât propoziţia care rezultă să aibă sens; se testează cunoştinţele referitoare la structură şi vocabular

Recomandări:

citiţi întâi întregul paragraf aşa cum este, cu spaţii libere; uneori indiciul se găseşte în propoziţia care vine după spaţiul liber pe care trebuie să îl completaţi;

reţineţi că trebuie să adăugaţi un singur cuvânt! trebuie să stabiliţi întâi ce parte de vorbire lipseşte (substantiv,

verb, adjectiv, adverb, prepoziţie etc.), în funcţie de topica firească a limbii, după care, dacă este cazul, concentraţi-vă pe forma pe care trebuie să o aibă respectivul cuvânt (număr şi caz la substantiv, timp la verb etc.);

nu daţi mai multe variante de răspuns pentru că în acest caz, chiar dacă una dintre variante este corectă, răspunsul dvs. nu va fi luat în considerare;

2. un paragraf în care există spaţii libere, numerotate, pe care dvs. trebuie să ie completaţi, alegând un cuvânt dintre 4 variante care vi se oferă

Recomandări:

dacă nu sunteţi siguri care este varianta potrivită, eliminaţi întâi variantele care sunt evident greşite (ca sens sau ca formă); uneori puteţi alege varianta corectă prin eliminarea celor incorecte;

nu daţi mai multe variante de răspuns pentru că în acest caz, chiar dacă una dintre variante este corectă, răspunsul dvs. nu va fi luat în considerare

3. câteva propoziţii în care mai multe segmente sunt numerotate şi subliniate şi care conţin o greşeală, pe care dvs. trebuie să o identificaţi;

Recomandări:

- greşelile pot varia de la ortografie la topică; citiţi cu atenţie segmentele subliniate şi concentraţi-vă asupra tuturor detaliilor lexico-gramaticale;

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- nu daţi mai multe variante de răspuns pentru că în acest caz, chiar dacă una dintre variante este corectă, răspunsul dvs. nu va fi luat în considerare;

4. câteva propoziţii în care există spaţii libere numerotate, pe care dvs. trebuie sate completaţi în aşa fel încât propoziţia să aibă sens; cuvântul pe care trebuie să îl adăugaţi se obţine prin derivarea cuvântului pe care îl aveţi scris cu majuscule la sfârşitul propoziţiei;

Recomandări:

- derivaţi cuvântul de la sfârşitul propoziţiei, nu alegeţi un alt cuvânt, din dreptul altei propoziţii;

- determinaţi ce parte de vorbire completează corect propoziţia |j apoi folosiţi sufixe şi/sau prefixe specifice respectivei părţi de vorbire (fiţi atenţi şi la acordul gramatical);

- pentru această probă ortografierea corectă a cuvântului derivat este esenţială

- citiţi propoziţia cu multă atenţie pentru a identifica eventuale conotaţii negative, care reclamă utilizarea unor prefixe şi/sau sufixe cu înţeles negativ;

- nu daţi mai multe variante de răspuns pentru că în acest caz, chiar dacă una dintre variante este corectă, răspunsul dvs. nu va fi luat în considerare;

- pentru a fi bine pregătiţi pentru această probă nu încercaţi să învăţaţi cuvinte derivate pe de rost; vă recomandăm să citiţi mult, folosind dicţionarul şi să reţineţi cuvintele în familii de cuvinte.

Pentru toate cele 4 sarcini de lucru vă recomandăm să nu lăsaţi necompletată foaia pentru răspunsuri. Chiar dacă nu sunteţi absolut siguri de corectitudinea răspunsului, există şansa ca el să fie corect, deci treceţi-l pe foaia dvs.

PROBA 4 - SCRIERE

Proba de scriere din cadrul testului pentru obţinerea certificatului de competenţă lingvistică evaluează capacitatea dumneavoastră de a concepe şi produce un text de aproximativ 180 de cuvinte în limba străină studiată.

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Acest lucru presupune atât cunoştinţe lingvistice, cât şi cunoştinţe referitoare la formatul şi organizarea unui tip de text, precum şi folosirea registrului adecvat în funcţie de cititorul preconizat

Tipurile de text cu care vi se cere să fiţi familiarizaţi sunt: - scrisorile formale (scrisoarea de intenţie, scrisoarea de

reclamaţie) - scrisorile informale - rapoartele - eseurile - articolele

Temele pe baza cărora vor fi formulate cerinţele de lucru sunt fie cele menţionate în programele de studiu, fie sunt subiecte de interes general, îhsă relevante pentru experienţa dumneavoastră academică sau profesională.

Recomandări generale:

- Nu uitaţi că price text conţine o parte introductivă, un cuprins şi o încheiere sau concluzie.

- Fiecare idee nouă trebuie formulată şi dezvoltată într-un paragraf. Delimitaţi clar paragrafele, fie începând fiecare nou paragraf la circa doi centimetri de marginea paginii, fie lăsând un spaţiu între paragrafe.

- Organizaţi fiecare paragraf în mod logic, începând cu ideea principală, pe care o dezvoltaţi cu detalii şi exemple relevante. Propoziţiile mai scurte, dar cu înţeles clar sunt de preferat celor foarte lungi, dar incoerente.

- Aveţi în vedere cititorul pe care-l presupune tipul de text cerut şi adoptaţi registrul potrivit (fie formal, fie informai). Fiţi consecvent în folosirea acestui registru.

- Referiţi-vă constant la cerinţele de lucru. Nu includeţi în text decât informaţiile relevante pentru tema propusă. Nu folosiţi în text fraze copiate din cerinţa de lucru, sau fraze învăţate în prealabil, dar care nu au legătură cu sarcina de lucru dată.

- Nu uitaţi că trebuie să produceţi un text coerent şi bine legat. Utilizaţi elemente de legătură care să vă ajute să organizaţi logic textul de la un capătja altul.

- Respectaţi limita de cuvinte specificată în sarcina de lucru, dezvoltând toate aspectele menţionate în cerinţa de lucru. Un număr prea mare de cuvinte poate însemna că aţi introdus în

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text o serie de informaţii irelevante, iar un număr de cuvinte semnificativ mai mic decât cel cerut indică faptul că răspunsul este incomplet.

- încercaţi să scrieţi citeţ. Examinatorii nu pot evalua decât ceea ce pot citi.

Recomandări specifice privind fiecare tip de text:

1 Tipul de

text DA: NU:

Scrisori formale/ informale

- respectaţi formatul adecvat scrisorilor formale/informale - menţionaţi adresele expeditorului şi destinatarului - nu uitaţi să începeţi şi să încheiaţi scrisoarea folosind formulele de adresare adecvate

! - nu introduceţi subtitluri, liste sau subpuncte în cuprinsul unei scrisori

- nu folosiţi informaţii irelevante pentru sarcina de lucru dată

Rapoarte - respectaţi formatul adecvat rapoartelor. Acestea au titlu şi cuprind paragrafe care au şi ele titluri, în funcţie de natura informaţiei oferite. - puteţi organiza informaţia în liste cu subpuncte - folosiţi un stil concis, clar şi un ton impersonal, potrivit registrului formal

- nu uitaţi că rapoartele presupun, pe lângă analiza unei situaţii, şi o parte finală cu sugestii sau recomandări

Eseuri - eseurile de tip argumentativ presupun un echilibru între numărul de argumente pro şi contra. Prezentaţi fiecare argument în cadrul unui paragraf separat, dar delimitat. - concluzia eseului argumentativ rezumă probele prezentate şi oferă opinia dumneavoastră asupra temei dezbătute - folosiţi un stil neutru

- de regulă, eseurile nu au titlu - nu organizaţi informaţia în liste cu subpuncte - nu vă rezumaţi la generalităţi. Prezentaţi amănunte concrete şi exemple din propria experienţă.

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Articole - articolul trebuie să aibă - nu uitaţi cui îi este | întotdeauna un titlu adresat articolul şi interesant adaptaţi registrul şi - în special introducerea şi stilul acestui grup de încheierea trebuie să cititori capteze interesul cititorilor - nu folosiţi informaţii 1 - utilizaţi conectori logici, atât irelevante pentru tema în interiorul paragrafelor, cât articolului propus şi ca legătură între paragrafe - nu introduceţi liste şi succesive, pentru a da subpuncte coerenţă textului

Elementele urmărite de către examinatori în procesul de evaluare Pe o scală de la 1 la 6, examinatorii vor avea în vedere următoarele aspecte: - formatul şi modul de organizare a textului;

• vi se cere să cunoaşteţi diferenţele de format între scrisoare şi raport, raport şi articol etc.

• trebuie să ştiţi cum să organizaţi informaţia în paragrafe bine alcătuite şi clar delimitate

- coerenţa şi coeziunea textului: organizarea logică a argumentelor aşa încât textul să conducă fluent spre o concluzie şi utilizarea instrumentelor lingvistice (cuvinte/fraze de legătură, conectori logici) adecvate pentru atingerea acestui scop; - complexitatea structurilor lingvistice utilizate şi acurateţea acestora; - relevanţa vocabularului pentru tema propusă; - utilizarea adecvată a registrelor formal şi informai şi adaptarea stilului la tipul de cititor; - acurateţea ortografiei.

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B. TESTAREA ORALA

Proba orală din cadrul testului pentru obţinerea certificatului de competenţă durează 5-7 minute şi cuprinde două părţi, fiecare dintre acestea presupunând discutarea unui subiect diferit şi urmărind verificarea unor competenţe de vorbire diferite.

Subiectul 1

Partea întâi a probei orale constă într-o miniprezentare de un minut pe o temă aleasă de dumneavoastră diritr-un set de subiecte formulate pe baza programei, în limbajul de specialitate studiat (limbaj general sau limbaj de afaceri). Această miniprezentare urmăreşte să evalueze:

- modul în care aţi reuşit să vă însuşiţi cei mai importanţi termeni de specialitate în aşa fel încât să-i puteţi folosi în mod relevant

- modul în care reuşiţi să organizaţi şi să produceţi un discurs corect şi coerent în limba străină, pornind de la o temă dată, argumentându-vă logic opiniile şî aducând exemple ilustrative pentru tema respectivă

Veţi avea la dispoziţie cel puţin 5 minute în care să vă pregătiţi discursul, timp în care puteţi face notiţe care să vă ajute în prezentare. Atenţie: nu este recomandabil să scrieţi şi apoi să citiţi întregul discurs. Examinatorii vor înţelege faptul că aţi putea avea emoţii, însă nu vor lua în considerare decât partea vorbită liber a prezentării dumneavoastră şi nu ceea ce citiţi.

Dat fiind că în această parte sunteţi invitaţi să vorbiţi timp de un minut pe tema aleasă, această limită de timp nu va fi redusă decât în următoarele condiţii:

- dacă, prin cuvinte sau gesturi, daţi de înţeles examinatorilor că nu mai doriţi să continuaţi. Examinatorii vă vor acorda câteva secunde de gândire şi/sau vă vor întreba dacă mai aveţi ceva

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de adăugat, înainte de a trece la partea următoare a probei orale;

- dacă vorbiţi în limba română. Nu uitaţi că acest test evaluează exclusiv capacităţile dumneavoastră de a vorbi în limba străină.

Examinatorii nu vor interveni decât dacă, după epuizarea limitei de timp de un minut, corţtinuaţi să vorbiţi. Nu veţi fi depunctaţi, însă veţi fi rugaţi să treceţi la partea urrhătoare a testului. De aceea, încercaţi să profitaţi de minutul acordat prezentării ca să convingeţi examinatorii că aveţi cunoştinţele de limbă străină necesare obţinerii punctajului de trecere.

Subiectul 2

Partea a doua a probei orale cuprinde un dialog de 3-4 minute cu examinatorii, pornind de la un nou subiect pe care îl veţi alege dintr-un set formulat pe baza programei şi conform limbajului de specialitate studiat (limbaj general sau limbaj de afaceri). Odată ales subiectul şi comunicat examinatorilor, aceştia vor iniţia o conversaţie la care veţi fi invitaţi să participaţi. Interviul urmăreşte să evalueze:

- modul în care înţelegeţi limba vorbită, producând răspunsuri relevante în funcţie de subiectul abordat şi participând activ la dialog.

- modul în pare ştiţi să vă exprimaţi acordul sau dezacordul şi să vă explicaţi poziţia în legătură cu cele discutate

Durata acestei părţi şi numărul întrebărilor pot varia în funcţie de lungimea răspunsurilor dumneavoastră. Dacă răspunsurile vor fi scurte, vi se vor adresa mai multe întrebări. In momentul în care examinatorii vor considera că le-aţi oferit dovezi suficiente privind abilităţile dumneavoastră de comunicare în limba străină, aceştia vă vor anunţa sfârşitul probei orale.

In partea a doua, vi se oferă posibilitatea de a discuta cu examinatorii pe tema aleasă. Profitaţi de ocazie pentru a vă exprima opiniile şi a aduce exemple relevante din experienţa dumneavoastră academică sau profesională. Mai ales, nu uitaţi să dovediţi că aveţi capacitatea de a comunica eficient în limba străină.

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Sfaturi utile pentru proba orală: - în partea întâi, citiţi cu atenţie cerinţele de lucru de pe

biletul de examen şi referiţi-vă strict la subiectul pe care vi se cere să-l prezentaţi.

- în cazul în care nu înţelegeţi un cuvânt sau o frază din formularea subiectului, nu este recomandabil să cereţi examinatorilor să vă ofere traduceri sau explicaţii. încercaţi să dezvoltaţi partea din subiect pe care o înţelegeţi, sau să deduceţi din context sensul cuvintelor/frazelor care nu vă sunt familiare.

- Folosiţi-vă toate cunoştinţele de limbă străină pentru a trata subiectele complet şi pentru a da posibilitatea examinatorilor să vă evalueze corect.

- Pe tot parcursul testului, vorbiţi clar şi destul de tare pentru a fi auzit. Urmaţi întocmai instrucţiunile examinatorilor.

Elementele urmărite de către examinatori în procesul de evaluare: Fiecare dintre cele două părţi ale testului se notează, pe baza unui punctaj, de la 1 la 6, în funcţie de performanţa dumneavoastră în partea respectivă. în ambele părţi ale testului, examinatorii vor avea în vedere: - complexitatea şi acurateţea limbajului - relevanţa vocabularului pentru subiectul tratat - modul de organizare al discursului şi modul în care ştiţi să

folosiţi toate resursele lingvistice de care dispuneţi pentru a vă face înţeles de către interlocutor

- pronunţia (cu precizarea că aceasta nu trebuie să fie neapărat perfectă, ci doar suficient de clară pentru ca interlocutorul să vă înţeleagă corect mesajul)

- abilităţile de comunicare în dialogul cu un interlocutor (felul în care ascultaţi şi răspundeţi şi felul în care reuşiţi să vă faceţi cunoscute opiniile, acceptând sau nu punctul de vedere al interlocutorului).

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III. EXEMPLE DE TESTE, PE

PROBE DE EXAMEN

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READING

Test 1

You are going to read a magazine article about money. Choose from the list (A - H) the sentence which best summarises each part (1— 6) of the article. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use.

A Royal portraits on coins made them easier to use. B It has become more difficult to say whşt money actually is. C Criminals madş a profit while reducing the value of coins. D Cash may disappear as cards take over. E For most people, money means the things it can get them. F Banknotes were introduced as a more convenient form of money. G Weight, not number, was once the key to a coin's worth. H The type of metal in coins can mean stability for governments.

Making Money

Coins are survivors in the changing world of finance

0 E The pound coin in your purse or pocket is a form of money that is easy to understand: it might buy a pound of apples, three chocolate bars or a tube ride across central London. If you're on the average wage of £240 a week, it takes you about ten minutes to earn one, and of course it can take only seconds to spend one. Whatever its value is in theory, to most of us the only point of a pound coin is in what it can buy us. ________________

1

This form of money has not changed much since coins were first introduced in Asia Minor in the 7th century BC. The first coins were made from a mixture of gold and silver, and to judge their value they had to be weighed rather than counted. This of course made buying things more complicated than it is today. 2

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Money has always meant power, so governments naturally want to control the supply of money. They originally did this by stamping the ruler's head on each coin. Governmental control of money became a guarantee that a coin was worth its face value, and also meant that people could just count coins rather than weighing them, thus saving

time and effort. 3

While this arrangement made life easier, some cheats came up with the idea of trimming bits of metal from the edges of coins, which they then melted down for profit This meant that the coins were not actually worth what they were supposed to be, so special rough edges were introduced in the late seventeenth century to prevent this practice.

4 Governments used to reduce the amount of precious metal in coins, but this devaluing of coinage has been blamed for the collapse of entire political systems. The empires of ancient Greece and Rome were built on stable coinage; the quantity of silver in Greek coins hardly changed in four centuries. But when Român emperors began to devalue their coins in order to make money for the government, the empire began to fail.

5 The world of money has become very complex. The financial and banking system is so complicated that people cannot even agree on a precise definition of money. At one extreme it is seen as simply the notes and coins which we use every day, while at the other money is defined as any valuable goods or services which can be exchanged for cash.

6 Nowadays money comes in three commonly used forms: notes, coins and plastic cards. Coins are now the least important part of the financial system, and will probably become even less important as more and more people use credit and debit cards as an easy alternative to filling their pockets and purses with cash. {Source: Virginia Evans, Practice Exam Papers for the Revised Cambridge Examination; Express Publishing* 1998) KEY 1G 2A 3C 4H 5B 6D

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Test 2

Read the following text about German banks. Then choose the best sentence from the box below the text to fill each of the gaps (e.g. 0 - B). Do not use any letter more than once. There is one extra sentence.

5 Big German Banks in Loan Pool

Five of Germany's largest banks, mired in their worst downturn since

World War II, plan to announce on Wednesday that they will pool up to

$50 billion worth of investment-grade loans in a new joint venture. 0 B

Deutsche Bank, Dresdner Bank, Commerzbank, HVB Group, and DZ

Bank will participate in the venture to be run by the state development bank, Kreditanstalt fur Wiederaufbau, or KfW. The venture could raise up to 5 billion euros ($5.44 billion) through the

sale of bonds backed by the loans. 1__

The move is a radical step by the banks to confront their many problems, which range from mounting bad loans to plummeting profits and share

prices, according to industry: analysts. "The banks are showing they're willing to try unorthodox solutions," said

David Williams, a banking analyst at Morgan Stanley in London. They're

saying, 'Our share prices have been killed. We've got to embrace

change. We've got to do things that were once unthinkable.'" Executives at the banks said the proposal was not related to a rumoured

plan by the government to set up a "bad bank" — an entity to take over and sell off nonperforming loans from the private banks. "This is not a bad bank," said a banker who spoke on condition of anonymity. "This is a good bank." Under the plan, he said, the banks would put their most creditworthy

loans into the venture. 2__

Because KfW is state owned, the banks are expected to contend that the government should not tax them on the transfer of loans. Moving the loans off the balance sheets of the banks would free capital because the banks would no longer have to back the credit risk of the loans with equity. It would also improve their rates of return for shareholders, and that could jolt their dismal share prices. 3 __ . "We are very hopeful that this program will help bring about the necessary funds for small and medium-size companies," Barbara Hendricks, a top official in the finance ministry, said in an interview with Bloomberg News. 4 __ Bankers here have repeatedly had to dispel suggestions that Germany is facing a banking crisis like that in Japan.

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How Germany can avoid such a crisis is being hotly debated. 5 __

Analysts have said that without state intervention the prospect of a bank that would take over bad loans is unlikely. The problem with creating such a bank, Mr. Williams said, is "the banks have to admit they've got those bad loans. 6 __

(Source: Adapted from http://query.nytimes.com/gsMullpage.html)

A. German government officials, who had a hand in arranging the joint venture, hope the banks will use their greater financial flexibility to resume lending, particularly to small and medium-size companies, which have experienced a drying up of their credit as Germany's economy skirts a recession.

B. The move, which is dependent on a change in German tax laws, could help to lighten the banks' overburdened balance sheets.

C. "in such a scenario, he added, "the shareholder still has to take some pain ultimately."

D. The pooling, known in industry jargon as securitization, is common in other countries, but Germany's venture is notable for its size and collaborative nature.

E.. Earlier this year, the chief executive of Deutsche Bank, Josef Ackermann, floated the idea of the government's setting up a bank to take over bad loans in a meeting with the chancellor, Gerhard Schroder.

F. That would allow KfW, which has a triple-A credit rating, to sell bonds backed by the loans.

G. But some sort of solution is urgently required, since an increasing number of German firms are warning that bank financing is proving hard to secure in the present difficult climate.

H. Of the major private banks, only Deutsche Bank managed to eke out a profit in the last year.

KEY

1D 2F 3 A 4H 5E 6C

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Test 3

Read the following text about new regulations and standards for accountants. Choose the best sentence from below to fill each of the gaps in the text (e.g. 0 - D). Do not use any letter more than once. There is one extra sentence.

The procession of companies admitting to having lied in their reported accounts has undermined faith in corporate numbers and put the

accounting profession under pressure to change its ways. 0.__ The

first priority for those who set accounting rules has been to try to choke off the most obvious loopholes. Looking further into the future, however, some see the crisis in accounting as an opportunity to change the shape and content of accounts more fundamentally 1. __ Under such circumstances, profits

may come to be stated as a range of figures, each of them arrived at by

using different accounting assumptions. This may sound worryingly uncertain, but it might be better than trying to

rely on a brittle illusion of accounting exactitude, which is liable to

collapse during times of economic strain. For the moment though, the

efforts of regulators and standard-setters are focused on five main

areas:

• Pro-forma accounts. These are the first sets of results produced by companies in America: they are unaudited and do not follow

America's GAAP (Generally Accepted Accounting Principles). In the years of the stock market bubble they were shamelessly abused. Companies regularly reported huge profits in their pro-forma earnings statements, only to register even larger losses in their official filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). 2.__

• Off-balance-sheet vehicles. These include the "special-purpose entities" made famous by Enron, which gave them the names of suitably fanciful characters in the Star Wars movies. 3.__. The

Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB), America's private-sector standard-setter, issued guidance on these vehicles in January, which Ford and General Motors say will have a material impact on their profits this year. But some think that the new rules are weak because they allow exemptions for "qualifying" special-purpose entities.

• Stock options. Most significant of all, perhaps, is the attempt to force companies to account for stock options granted to their employees. This week, FASB agreed that the cost of employee stock options should be treated as an expense. The question is how to value

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them. 4. __ Opposition is gathering once more, although this time

recent accounting scandals should lend support to FASB's position.

• Pension funds. Another controversial aim is to make companies change the way they account for their employee pension schemes. Britain's new standard on pensions, FRS17, forces them to measure pension assets at market value. In future, if a company's pension fund owes its members more than it owns in assets, the difference will be shown on the balance sheet Outside Britain, such gaps can be smoothed out over years, with the result that some companies are still recording profits from their pension schemes despite the fact that the schemes themselves are in deficit. 5.__

• Revenue recognition. This is the vexed issue of when precisely to include revenue in the accounts—for example, when an order is made, when it is shipped, or when payment is received. Revenue recognition has been the main reason for restatements of accounts by American companies in recent years. 6.__ Again, the effect could be far-reaching: companies could be made to look far smaller if they are prevented from pulling revenue forward from future periods, as many do now.

(Source: http://w4. stern, nyu. edu/news/news/20Q3/april/0426economist html)

A. Britain's approach will spread: in March, FASB said it would start examining ways to improve accounting for employee pension plans, with the aim of publishing a new standard on pension accounting in America next year.

B. They allowed the Houston oil trader to hide hundreds of millions of dollars of liabilities from investors' eyes.

C. Sir David Tweedie, chairman of the International Accounting Standards Board (lASB) in London, and his equivalents around the world want to lay down new rules on when a company can recognise revenue.

D. In the 1990s, accountants clearly failed to keep up with the tricks that were devised to help companies inflate their profits.

E. Since the end of March this year, companies have been compelled to show how they reconcile their pro-forma figures with the numbers subsequently produced according to GAAP rules, of which there are hundreds.

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F. The growing use of market values for assets and liabilities (instead of the accidental "historic.cost" at which they were obtained) is going to make shareholders' equity and profits swing around far more than in the past.

G. Standard-setters may find it a struggle to bring in tough new measures. But they have a wider agenda that finance directors will eventually find it hard to resist. They want to stop companies using accounting rules to create the impression that profits rise remorselessly every year—by, in effect, smoothing out their earnings.

H. The standard-setters may yet have a fight on their hands. In 1994, Congress threatened to take away FASB's standard-setting powers if it did not abandon its attempt to make companies "expense" their stock options.

KEY

1F 2E 3B 4H 5 A 6C

Test 4

Read the following article about business ethics. Some sentences have been removed from the text. Choose from sentences A-J the one which fits each gap (1-9). There is one sentence which you do not need to use.

Ethical Decision-making Quick Test by Bruce A, Hamm

Often, making ethical decisions in the work place is a delicate balancing act between competing forces. Easy decisions like "should I embezzle hundreds of thousands of dollars" are obvious and generally do not require much help or analysis to determine whether they are ethical or not. 1.__ Having a quick test allows you to make the easy decisions

and recognize when the decision may be a bit more difficult. If at any point, you cannot legitimately answer the question, you might consider asking someone else for help. 2.__ Remember, generally the

decisions are yours and you have to live with the results, so be prepared to accept responsibility for them. Is it legal?

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This is the first filter through which your ethical decision will pass, 3.__ A business law professor in an MBA course once stated that the law is generally about 12 years behind society's concept of ethical practices. Don't simply stop your ethical decision making process at whether an action is legal. It may not be against the law but it may also riot be the right thing to do. If the answer is no or raises objections, you must stop, reject the action and take another course 4.__ . How would it look in the news?

Okay, you've determined that your action is legal. Now, how would it look to the rest of your community, the nation and ever more frequently, the world? It's one thing for you or even your close associates to know about your decisions and actions but entirely another when people

outside your inner circle know about them. 5.__ Would you be

embarrassed to have these events known? How would your company perceive publicity surrounding your actions? If the answer is unacceptable, stop, reject the action and take another course. If the answer is acceptable, go on to the next criteria. Does it comply with our company values?

What are your company values? Okay, let's first assume your company values are legitimate ones. Do your actions conform to them? For example: if your values say something about treating employees fairly, do you have a legitimate process for applying discipline and/or discharge? Do managers fire people in the heat of an emotional upheaval or is there an appropriate escalation of discipline before the

company allows such a step? 6.__ If your action conforms to your corporate values, move on to the next criteria. Under the same circumstances, would I want the result of this decision

to happen to everyone? Am I treating others as I want to be treated?

How do you want to be treated? If you've made a mistake do you take

responsibility for it? Have you accepted appropriate discipline with an

attitude conducive to correcting the behavior? 7.__ If you've done

something well, do you expect an appropriate reward, even if it is only

verbal? Do you give that same level of reward to your staff or coworkers? For decisions concerning others, is the result of the action

fair? Does the person affected get only the appropriate degree of reward

or discipline? Would others agree with your perception of the outcome?

If ho, stop, reject the action and take another course. If yes, move on to

the next criteria. How will I feel after the decision is known? Can I face myself the next morning?

This is the man in the mirror story (updated to include the woman in the

mirror). 8.__ How do you feel about the decision? Even if it is a tough

decision and the outcome would affect someone negatively, have you

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acted out of the overall best interest of everyone concerned? If the answer is no, stop, reject the action and find another course. If yes, take the action with good confidence you've resolved your dilemma. Often with subsequent information we regret our actions but we also realize that we make decisions with the information available at the time. If the decision does not need to be made immediately, have you given your proposed action enough reflection to feel confident about its outcome?

This process may seem long. 9. ___ Every time you discard a particular option run the next alternativa through this same practice. Taking the time to review decisions with an ethical perspective is critical to making the right choices. When a company's people focus on their ethical behavior, everyone involved is better off.

(adapted and abridged from http://www.work911.com/cgh bin/liriks/iump.cgi?ID=3935)

A. If it is legal, go on to the next criteria.

B. If your ethical dilemma is obviously at odds with your company values, stop, reject the action and take another course.

C. When you shave or apply your makeup and you think of the action you will take, can you look yourself in the mirror and know you are satisfied you've done the right thinâ?

D. It's a bit tougher when the decision is between two competing right things to do.

E. In general, they may even share part of the responsibility.

F. However, the more you use it, the more quickly you can work through the decision review process on subsequent occasions.

G. The word discipline has its origins in the Greek word meaning to teach not to punish.

H. Talk to your supervisor or, if you are lucky enough to have an ethics officer or ethics helpline, talk to whoever can help you make the final decision.

I. How will the people you don't know perceive your actions?

J. Legal and ethical are not equivalent concepts.

KEY

1D 2H 3J 4A 51 6B 7G 8C 9F

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ENGLISH IN USE

Test 1

QUESTIONS 1-10 DIRECTIONS: For each blank think of ONE word that can best fit in the context On your answer sheet write the ONE word you have found.

Rosen Sharma is sure about (1)___ thing. His nine-month-old

company, Solidcore, a start-up that makes backup security systems (2)___ computers, could not survive (3)___ outsourcing. By lowering his development costs, the 18 engineers who work for him in India (4)___ as little as one-fourth the salary of their American counterparts allow him to spend money on 13 senior managers, engineers and marketing people in Silicon Valley. (5)___ he doesn't outsource, in fact, the venture capitalists who fund start-ups like his won't give him a nickel. Sharma's Indian-American team, tethered by a broadband connection, gets his product (6)___ front of customers faster and cheaper. "As a business, you have to stay competitive," he says. "If we don't do it, our competitors (7)___, and they're going to blow us away." But Sharma's sharp analysis loses its edge when he thinks (8)___ what decisions like his will mean someday for his children. "(9)___ a father, my reaction is different than my reaction as a CEO," he says. He believes that companies (10)___ his will always need senior people in the U.S., like the systems architects who design new products and the experienced salespeople who close deals.

QUESTIONS 11-20 DIRECTIONS: For each blank decide which of the options A, B, C or D is best ONLY ONE answer is correct and THERE IS ALWAYS ONE correct answer. On your answer sheet write A or B or C or D.

"But if you're graduating (11)___ college today, where are the entry- level jobs?" Sharma asks (12)___. How do you get to that (13)___, skilled job when the path that leads you there has disappeared?

That's an issue that economists, politicians and workers are struggling

(14)___ as the U.S. finds itself (15)___ the middle of a structural shift in the economy that no one quite (16)___. There (17)___ be a mix-up

here. We ordered a recovery, heavy on the jobs, please. What we're

getting is a new kind of homeland insecurity powered by the (18)___ of outsourcing, an ominous piece of business jargon that seems to (19)___ that every call centre, insurance-claims processor,

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programming department and Wall Street back office is being moved to India, Ireland or some other place thousands of miles (20)___.

11. A of B from C after D out 12. A quit B quiet C quite D quietly

13. A secure B insecure C secured D safely 14. A against B with C over D for 15. A at B in C on D into 16. A waited B awaited C expected D sighted

17. A should B will C must D need 18. A raise B rising C arise D rise 19. A imply B implement C complicate D complement 20. A far B out C away D outside

QUESTIONS 21-25 DIRECTIONS: For each of the following questions (21 to 25) there are four parts underlined and lettered A, B, C and D. One of the underlined parts, A or B or C or D, makes the sentence INCORRECT. Only ONE answer is possible for each sentence. THERE IS ALWAYS ONE possible answer. On your answer sheet write A or B or C or D.

21. To be sure, (A) public anxiety and election-year finger pointing

have blurred some important distinctions, (B) To set them straight: most of the jobs (C) that have shifted to places like Mexico and China in the past several decades have been in manufacturing, which (D) is been done with ever increasing sophistication in low-wage countries.

22. Some (A) have blamed also trade-liberalization deals like the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA), (B) which the Labor Department estimates (C) was responsible for the loss of more than 500,000 U.S. jobs (D) between 1994 and 2002.

23. (A) That's a significant number but (B) modest in comparison to the millions of jobs (C) that are created and lost annually in the constant churn (D) of the US. economy.

24. Indeed, (A) much of the job loss during (B) the recent U.S. recession was cyclical in nature. (C) But in recent years, one noteworthy segment of the economy began suffering (D) of the permanent chanqe of outsourcing, particularly the movement of service-industry, technology-oriented jobs to overseas locations with lower salaries.

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25. (A) What puts teeth (B) into the buzz word is the sense that (C) to get outsourced (D) could happen to almost anyone.

(Adapted from Time, 22 Feb. 2004)

QUESTIONS 26-30 DIRECTIONS: Starting from the word in CAPITAL LETTERS at the end of each sentence, derive another word that best fits in the context of that sentence indicated by a blank space (“___”). On your answer sheet, write the derived word.

In theory, we all benefit when we can get services more cheaply abroad. But as a (26)____ matter, there PRACTICE

are huge costs of dislocated workers and job (27)____. SECURE

The answer is not to try to stop outsourcing, but we do have to get serious about job retraining, lifetime learning, extended (28)__ insurance and wage insurance. EMPLOY We may also want to not permit companies to deduct the expense of outsourcing from their (29)____ taxes, COME

and use the (30) ____ to help workers who lost jobs. SAVE

KEY

1 ONE

2 FOR

3 WITHOUT

4 FOR

5 IF 6 IN

7 WILL

8 ABOUT

9 AS

10 LIKE

11 B

12 D

13 A

14 B

15 B

16 C

17 C 18 D 19 A 20 C 21 D 22 A 23 B . 24 D 25 C 26 PRACTICAL 27 INSECURITY 28 UNEMPLOYMENT 29 INCOME 30 SAVINGS

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Test 2

QUESTIONS 1-10 DIRECTIONS: For each blank think of ONE word that can best fit in the context. On your answer sheet write the ONE word you have found.

Most people have no trouble borrowing money or getting a credit card

when they apply (1)___ one. Occasionally, however, a person (2)___ refused credit because he or she is considered (3)___ be a "bad risk". In Britain, a number of agencies have been set (4)___ which keep

details (5)___ file of any debts a person may have. These details are

then given to lenders (6)___ want to check that the person who wants

to borrow from them is (7)___ to pay the money (8)___. The agencies

receive this information from banks and shops and keep each record

(9)___ six years. Unfortunately, this information is not always correct, causing

embarrassment and difficulties (10)___ people who do repay money

and who, therefore have no idea why their application for credit has been refused.

QUESTIONS 11-20 DIRECTIONS: For each blank decide which of the options A, B, C or D is best. ONLY ONE answer is correct and THERE IS ALWAYS ONE correct answer. On your answer sheet write A or B or C or D.

Proposals to ease rules covering work (11)___ for workers from non-EU states have been rejected after a Home Office investigation. (12)___ companies had hoped the Government would relax current arrangements that prevent them from issuing work permits for staff they

hire from overseas. Their hopes have been dashed by strong opposition from unions, Whitehall departments and other bodies who feel that relaxing the rules

would damage job (13)___ for UK workers and increase recruitment (14)___. (15)___ recruitment of information technology staff is at the heart of the

issue. Thousands, mainly from Australia, South Africa and India, are

already working in the United Kingdom after applying directly to

companies employing them. Agencies are barred from hiring and placing

them. The HO launched the review to see whether changes were needed to

reflect current and future (16)___ market issues. There were initial signals that ministers and officials were prepared to ease restrictions but the (17)___ in demand for IT staff and the problems afflicting the sector are said to have produced a rethink.

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The hopes for change had been reinforced by the government decision

to grant work permit authority to (18)___ involved in recruiting teachers

to hire foreign staff to ease shortages in UK schools. Agencies are, however, planning to maintain the (19)___ for change. Ann Swain, chief executive of the Association of Technology Staffing Companies, says her members are disappointed at the outcome of the review. She added: "We believe that this decision is a short-sighted one

and is partly based on complacency about IT skill (20)___.The IT

market may be depressed at the moment but it will recover and once it does the Government will find itself fire-fighting again to fill the skills gap."

11. A permission 12. A employment 13. A prospects 14. A expenses

15. A abroad 16. A employment 17. A slump 18. A channels 19. A stress 20. A failure

B allowances B recruitment B vistas B costs B inland B work B upturn B agencies B pressure B inadequacy

C permits

C engagement C perspectives C overheads C domestic

C job

C stagnation C means C tension C deficiency

D authorisation D enrolment D lookout D prices D overseas D labour D depression D ministries D strain D shortage

QUESTIONS 21-25 DIRECTIONS: in each of the following sentences there are four parts underlined and lettered A, B, C and D. For each sentence, find the underlined part, A or B or C or D that makes the sentence INCORRECT. Only ONE answer is possible for each sentence. THERE IS ALWAYS ONE possible answer. On your answer sheet write A or B or C or D.

21. Greg Driscoll took (A) a little for granted before (B) accepting the job of president and chief executive of Enerwise Global Technologies, an energy technology company. He (C) interviewed the company's board members and its (D) entire executive team and even spoke with middle managers.

22. He then prodded (A) people outside the company to get (B) a sense of Enerwise's reputation in the industry. "In companies like this, everyone has (C) an aggressive view on how fast it's going to grow, so you have (D) to take that with a grain of salt," Mr. Driscoll said.

23. Today, things (A) aren't always as they seem. (B) Satisfied bv the answers he received, he took charge (C) of the company, based

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in Kennett Square, Pa., last winter. The company (D) began operating 18 months ago as a spinoff of Connective Inc. of Wilmington, Del.

24. Job seekers and employees (A) on different rungs of the corporate ladder (B) are doing all thev can to protect (C) themselves of problems, economic or sometimes ethical, that (D) have been dragging down many companies.

25. Some executives, (A) even those well below the level of chief executive, are trying (B) to negotiate specific contracts and severance packages, or (C) inquiring of liability protection. Others are working to improve their resumes and reputations in their companies, (D) by taking courses or by volunteering for extra work assignments.

QUESTIONS 26-30 DIRECTIONS: Starting from the word in CAPITAL LETTERS at the end of each sentence, derive another word that best fits in the context of that sentence indicated by a

blank space ("___"). On your answer sheet, write the derived

word. Patricia Hewitt, the Trade & Industry Secretary, yesterday scrapped all 183 of its (26)___ support schemes, saying the system was confusing and (27)___. The £1 billion that her department used to dole out is now being (28)___ to a single pot distributed by an (29)___ committee. From now on, the money will be considered as part of an investment portfolio (30)___ by a committee.

26. BUSY 27. WASTE 28. TRANSFER 29. INVEST 30. SEE

KEY

1 FOR I 2 IS

3 TO 4 UP 5 ON 6 WHOfTHAT

j 7 LIKELY i 8 BACK

9 FOR

10 FOR 11 C 12 B 13 A 14 B 15 D 16 D 17 A 18 B

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19 B 20 D

21 A 22 C

23 B

24 C

25 C

26 BUSINESS

27 WASTEFUL

28 TRANSFERRED

29 INVESTMENT

30 OVERSEEN

Test 3

QUESTIONS 1-10 DIRECTIONS: For each blank think of ONE word that can best fit in the context. On your answer sheet write the ONE word you have found.

Most (1)___ say that they wish to employ the (2)___ person for the

right job. A recent report (3)___ Britain's independent Institute of Manpower Studies, however, disagrees (4)___ this. The report states

that most employers wish to avoid (5)___ the wrong person. Rather than looking for the right person, they are looking for applicants to turn

(6)___.

The report also suggests that in Britain and in many (7)___ parts of the

world, the selection methods used to identify the right person for the job

certainly do not match up to those (8)___ to evaluate a piece of new

equipment. Recruiters used three main selection methods: interviewing, checking curriculum vitae or application forms (9)___ predecided

criteria, and examining references. Most of the recruiters consulted in this survey stated that these selection methods were used more

(10)___ “weeding out” unsuitable candidates rather than for finding

suitable ones.

QUESTIONS 11-20 DIRECTIONS: For each blank decide which of the options A, B, C or D is best ONLY ONE answer is correct and THERE IS ALWAYS ONE correct answer. On your answer sheet write A or B or C or D.

Interviews were considered to be more (11)___ than either curriculum

checks or references from past employers. Research, however, proves

(12)___. Interviewers' decisions are often strongly influenced by their (13)___ assessment of the written application. Also, different recruiters

interpret facts differently. One may consider candidates who have frequently changed jobs as people with (14)___ and useful experience.

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Another will view such candidates as unreliable and unlikely (15)___

for long in the new job. Some employers (16)___ great importance on academic qualifications

whereas the link between this and success in management is not necessarily strong. Some recruiters use handwriting as (17)___.The

report states that there is little evidence to support the (18)___ of the latter for assessing working ability. References, also, are sometimes unreliable as they are rarely critical, whereas checks on credit and security records and applicants' political leanings are often the opposite. The report is more favourable towards trainability tests and those which test personality and personal and mental (19)___. The report concludes by suggesting that interviewing could become more reliable if the questions (20)___ more structured and focused on the needs of the employing organisation.

11.

A reliable B reliant C professional D secure

12.

A different B difference C other way D otherwise

13.

A prevision B preview C previous D precarious

14.

A broad B large C big D high 15.

A staying B to stay C stay D to be 16.

A accord B afford C put D place 17.

A a criterion B an element C a factor D a marker 18.

A value B valour C validity D valuables

19.

A capacities B skills C dexterity D qualities

20.

A are B were C would be D had been

QUESTIONS 21-25 DIRECTIONS: In each of the following sentences there are four parts underlined and lettered A, B, C and D. For each sentence, find the underlined part, A or B or C or D that makes the sentence INCORRECT. Only ONE answer is possible for each sentence. THERE IS ALWAYS ONE possible answer. On your answer sheet write A or B or C or D.

21. One of (A) mv main ambitions is (B) to travel around the world. (C) visiting as many countries as possible. I think that (D) to travel is a very good way to learn about life.

22. (A) It is important to understand that (B) there are many different ways to live/ and (C) that our own culture is not (D) necessarily better then other cultures.

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23. On the other hand, I realise that (A) it is very hard (B) getting to know a foreign country well (C) if you are just passing through as a tourist That is why (D) I would try to talk to the local people of the country I was visiting. 24. (A) If we did not have understand (B) each other's language, then maybe (C) we could talk in English. I would not like (D) to travel on my own because that could be lonely, or even dangerous.

25. I (A) would take my best friend with me. The only problem I have (B) about travelling around the world is money. I (C) would have to save for years (D) so to be able to afford such an expensive holiday!

QUESTIONS 26-30 DIRECTIONS: Starting from the word in CAPITAL LETTERS at the end of each sentence, derive another word that best fits in the context of that sentence indicated by a blank space (“__”). On your answer sheet, write the derived word. With this letter you will find your invitation to attend the Annual General Meeting of the Society. Please note that it will take place on 10 September (the last newsletter ( 26)___ stated that the meeting would be on 9 September). The meeting will begin at 8pm but (27)___ will be

available from 7pm. You will therefore have time to chat (28)___ with committee members and officials of the Society before the meeting commences. At 8pm, the Chairman will make a brief (29)___ speech and then put forward some proposals for your (30)___. The enclosed agenda gives a full description of the business to be conducted at the meeting.

CORRECT

FRESH

FORMAL

INTRODUCE

APPROVE

KEY

1 EMPLOYERS/ MANAGERS

2 RIGHT

3 BY

4 WITH

5 EMPLOYING/ HIRING

6 DOWN

7 OTHER

8 USED

9 AGAINST

10 FOR

11 A

12 D

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13 C

14 A 15 B 16 D 17 A 18 C 19 B 20 B 21 D 22 D

23 B

24 A

25 D

26 CORRECTLY

27 REFRESHMENTS

28 INFORMALLY

29 INTRODUCTORY

30 APPROVAL

Test 4

QUESTIONS 1-10 DIRECTIONS: For each blank think of ONE word that can best fit in the context. On your answer sheet write the ONE

word you have found.

Why New Products Fail

by Jill Konrath

"It's our sales force, John," complained Chris Morgan, product manager for the 5540. "They've really dropped the ball on us. All our research showed that (1)___ we came out with a product with the capabilities of the 5540, the marketplace (2)___ jump on it. Well, we did ... and now, quite frankly, I question whether the sales force knows (3)___ to sell it". Unfortunately, this same scenario - or one very much (4)___ it - is being played out with increasing regularity these days at both large (5)___ small companies in virtually every sector of American business. To most managers, the question is an all-too-familiar one: Why (6)___ a high-quality product that's priced right and introduced to the market (7)___ an opportune time end up as a failure? All too often, it seems, the simplest conclusion is that the sales force is inadequate. (8)___ the other hand, there are two sides (9)___ every story. Let's return (10)___ a moment to our fictional scenario and take a look at how the sales organization perceives the 5540.

QUESTIONS 11-20 DIRECTIONS: For each blank decide which of the options A, B, C or D is best. ONLY ONE answer is correct and THERE IS ALWAYS ONE correct answer. On your answer sheet write A or B or C or D. "I don't know who in the world ever thought the 5540 (11) ___ our ticket to the big time," grumbled senior sales rep Pat Johnson. "I'm

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approaching my best prospects. I'm telling them all about the 5540 and

what it can do (12) __ them. But when I tell them how much it costs, they say, 'Whoa - our problems aren't that bad.' They're not (13) ___ to

spend that much money. Marketing screwed up again." Can Chris and Pat both (14) __ about the same product? And if so, why are their perceptions so different? How could this well-researched, high-quality product- one that has seemingly been priced according to its value - be involved in such a struggle (15)__ acceptance in the marketplace?

These kinds of questions (16) __ over and over with new product rollouts. In most cases, they can be addressed and answered simply by

examining the process of how a new product is introduced to the sales

force. DOING YOUR LEVEL BEST

(17)__ the time a new product is ready for market, companies have

often invested millions of dollars and several years of time and effort in

the project (18)__ launch time, many companies- for (19) ___ reason

- close their pocketbooks. After all that expense, they suddenly try to find the cheapest way to bring the new product (20)___.

11. A is B was C will be D has been 12. A for B to C from D with 13. A ready B aware C willing D wishful 14. A talk B speak C be talking D tell 15. A on B about C over D for 16. A crop up B crop on C crop in D crop against 17. A At B in C By D For 18. A By B At C For D In 19. A whatever B whichever C no D some 20. A in B out C over D up

QUESTIONS 21-25 DIRECTIONS: For each of the following questions (21 to 25) there are four parts underlined and lettered A, B, C and D. One of the underlined parts, A or B or C or D, makes the sentence INCORRECT. Only ONE answer is possible for each sentence. THERE IS ALWAYS ONE possible answer. On your answer sheet write A or B or C or D.

21. They (A) don't want to pull their sales and management people (B) out from the field for meetings or training. They (C) shrink from the cost of additional tools or materials (D) to assist in the selling process.

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22. Or they're (A) overly optimistic about the ability (B) of their salespeople to quickly grasp (C) a new selling strategy. In short, they just don't realize that selling a new product may require (D) an entire different process from selling an existing one.

23. (A) Prior to launching a new product, a company (B) needs to analyze the relationship (C) between the product and the customer. This relationship will (D) on turn determine the level of the difficulty of the sale.

24. When (A) a sales reps calls on the same customer to sell (B) a product extension of their existing line, the sale is relatively easy The sales rep (C) understands the customer's needs and knows how decisions are made. The customer is (D) familiar with the sales rep, the sales rep's company, and knows what to expect.

25. When a new product is introduced (A) to an existing customer the difficulty of closing the sale (B) increases slight. The critical selling task (C) is figuring out what problems the new product (D) solves for customers and how it addresses their needs. The sales rep must then ensure the sales effort focuses on these areas.

QUESTIONS 26-30 DIRECTIONS: Starting from the word in CAPITAL LETTERS at the end of each sentence, derive another word that best fits in the context of that sentence indicated by a blank space ("__"). On your answer sheet, write the derived word.

The sale gets (26)___ more difficult as the rep PROGRESS ventures into new territory. New customers can be defined as: 1) those in a

different industry; 2) those in the same industry but PRIORITY with no (27)___ experience with the company; or 3) new areas within an existing customer's business. Many times these new customers have (28) ___ DIFFER terminologies, ways of doing business, and key concerns. Their problems - and how the new product solves them - are (29)___. KNOW But the product does have marketplace (30) ___ ACCEPT making it a less risky decision.

(Source: http://www.marketingsource.com/articles/view/1512)

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KEY

1 IF

2 WOULD

3 HOW

4 LIKE

5 AND

6 DOES

7 AT

8 ON

9 TO 10 FOR

11 B

12 A 13 C 14 C 15 D 16 A

17 C 18 B 19 A 20 B 21 B (out of)

| 22 D (entirely) 1 23 D (in turn) | 24 A (rep)

25 B (slightly) j 26 PROGRESSIVELY

27 PRIOR I 28 DIFFERENT

29 UNKNOWN 30 ACCEPTANCE

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WRITING

Test 1

Situation: You have received a venture offer from Blue Safari, inviting you to invest in their real estate prospect.

Task: In no more than 150-200 words write a formal letter of reply, giving at least three reasons for not accepting the business partnership. Feel free to use fictitious names and addresses.

Sample letter - Decline of venture offer Huskit Pic.

79 Bridgeway London SNI 3RT

1 April 2007

John Jones, CEO Blue Safari 65 Coastline Drive Kingston Jamaica

Dear Mr. Jones

Thank you for choosing our corporation as potential investor in your venture and sending me the information on Blue Safari.

With reference to your business concept, which I found very interesting, I have to make three observations which drove me to getting to the final decision.

First, I became doubtful when I analysed your business pian, which lacks in presenting precise information concerning your competition on the market

Second, at a closer look, I realized that the teams of managers you are working with are too young and inexperienced, having no proven track record in the field.

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Finally, another serious inconvenience occurred to me when I realized the fact that investing in your business would imply covering a geographic area I am not familiar with, and sending my specialists away from our headquarters in London for an extended period of time.

Therefore, I am returning your material under separate cover, not before wishing you the best of luck in your new venture.

Yours sincerely Mark Morrow

Test 2

Situation: As the head of the research group investigating the application of state-

of-the-art technology in Ratbus Bank, your responsibility is to regularly present a proposal regarding the latest set of technology related issues.

Task:

Write a 200-250 word proposal, including the following: • a brief outline of the current uses of technology in the banking system • a description of what technological improvements could be made • a presentation of the way of implementation • an enumeration of the possible drawbacks.

Sample Proposal

To: The R&D Department

From: G.G. Smith, Head of the Research Group

Subject: State-of-the-art Banking Technology

Date: 20, August, 2005

Background

We all know that the speed with which our bank adopts new technology is not as important as the quality of the solution it adopts. Therefore, I suggest that we thoughtfully consider the attributes of a new information system to be certain it will interoperate with our existing systems, and the solution we find is capable of withstanding the ever changing market.

Proposal Since the future is increasingly pointing to the use of digital documents and digital signatures, I suggest that we, too, give more consideration to

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the electronic equivalent of a written signature or written document.

In this way we would keep up the pace with the e-commerce marketplace, which, these days, is generally focusing on digital signature as an essential component. This is, in large part, due to digital signatures addressing the issues of authentication, non-repudiation and message integrity.

Implementation

Concerning the aspect of implementation, I recommend the careful analysis of the following points: • the adopting of a set of new technologies, services and bank policies • the creation of digital documents and the associated requirements for document management, storage and access security, periodic hardware upgrades, and disaster recovery facilities • the creation of new jobs in the form of new technology-management positions.

Possible drawbacks Although the advantages outgrow disadvantages, I have to mention the fact that, if our bank will deploy these technologies, it should exercise caution in selecting a vendor. Owing to the initial and ongoing costs, it is unlikely that we will opt to develop our own digital signature technology and, thus, we will be outsourcing this function or purchasing this capability for our existing infrastructures.

Furthermore, the lack of interoperability between the bank's system and the frequently updated systems of the vendors on the market may result in several dysfunctions.

Test 3

Situation: For some time now your clients have been complaining about the bad communication skills of your accountants. As a result of this situation you have decided to put them on a training course.

Task: Write a 100-150 word memo in which you:

- announce them about the course - give them some details about the course - ask them to inform you when they prefer to attend the course

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Sample Memo

To: All accountants From: J. Mass, Manager of the HR Department Subject: Improving communication skills Date: 22, May, 2005

Our clients have been complaining, for some time now, about the lack of basic communicative skills of our accountants, especially when it comes to explaining how generally accepted accounting principles apply into practice.

In order to help our staff become better communicators we decided to organize a training course in speaking and writing skills.

Since the course is six months long, four hours per week, and all the staff is invited to take part in it, we have to find the best solution regarding the most suitable timing of this event.

Therefore, please let me know as soon as possible (no later than Monday 18) the days of the week you choose for attending the course, and whether you want to meet your instructor:

• early in the morning; • late in the evening.

Test 4

Write an essay of opinion on the following topic: "IT Has Changed the World"

Sample essay of opinion

IT has definitely had a great impact on dur world! Nowadays we are surrounded by technology and we can do things that our predecessors wouldn't even have dreamed about. We can travel faster, diseases that were incurable in the past can be cured today, not to speak about the large amounts of information that can be stored and accessed from anywhere, anytime.

Are we dependent on IT? Whether we admit it or not, we can no longer ignore computers and the Internet. Communicating with people living in other countries is no longer a problem. The speed at which messages

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are transmitted and the low costs implied have convinced even our grandparents that computer literacy is a must, not a mere fashion of our days.

IT is present in all domains of activity, from agriculture to commercial activities, from education to manufacturing activities, not to speak of banking and advertising. Businesses which have not invested in cutting edge technology take the risk of being uncompetitive and can be forced to withdraw from the market

Does IT have negative effects? Skeptics and traditionalists say that it has. They say it will make us less human and addiction to computers might distort interpersonal communication. It might be true, air things have always had positive and negative aspects, but in this case, if we were to enumerate the advantages of IT, for sure they will outnumber the disadvantages.

Considering these aspects, we have to admit that IT has indeed changed our lives. It depends on each of us whether we want to see the advent of technology as being progressive of, on the contrary, the cause of all our problems. For those used to blame rather than learn and take good advantage of innovations it is high time they changed their approach. It is not too late!

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SPEAKING - PART 1

Task 1

Make a short presentation (of about 1 minute) on the following topic:

Marketing: Art or Science?

Refer to: o what marketers do; o the marketing mix (the 4 Ps: product, price, promotion,

place); o the skills that good marketers need nowadays; o whether these skills are closer to what artists are endowed with or to what scientists know and apply

daily.

Task 2

Make a short presentation (of about 1 minute) on the following topic, stating whether you agree or disagree with the problem presented:

Bank loans have changed people's lives. Do you agree?

Refer to: o the general economic context that has encouraged the proliferation of credits; o the way in which interest rates affect people's attitudes towards banks; o whether or not you have ever thought about taking a loan; o the contribution of this and other banking services to the

well-being of society.

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Task 3

Make a short presentation (of about 1 minute) on the following topic, stating whether you agree or disagree with the problem presented:

A business without advertising is like throwing kisses to a girl in the dark. Do you agree?

Refer to: o whether or not advertising is relevant in today's

business world; o the most well- known advertising media and their effectiveness; o the reasons for which well-known companies still

choose to spend a significant amount of money on advertising.

Task 4

Make a short presentation (of about 1 minute) on the following topic:

What would motivate you in a job?

Refer to: o the extent to which money is more important than job satisfaction in your case; o whether or not more responsibility could motivate you or reduce your enthusiasm in a job.

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SPEAKING - PART 2 Task 1

PRESENTATIONS

Examiner: Have you ever given a presentation in front of an audience? Was it a business presentation?

Candidate:

Think about a situation when you spoke in front of an audience (even if it was only in a seminar) and describe your experience.

Examiner: What makes a good presentation?

Candidate:

Refer to: o the importance of beforehand preparation and methods to

prepare (speaking in front of a mirror, recording oneself, practicing in front of friends etc);

o the qualities that presenters need in order to be effective

(communication skills, self-confidence, the ability to prepare well etc).

Task 2

BUSINESS TRAVEL

Examiner: Would you like to have a job that implies business travel?

Candidate:

Answer the question giving reasons for your choice. If the answer is no, try to explain (otherwise your answer could be interpreted as a refusal to speak). Think about the advantages and disadvantages of traveling for business purposes.

Examiner: What facilities should hotels offer to business people?

Candidate: Connection to the Internet, conference room, fax, telephone etc.

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Task 3

MEETINGS

Examiner: Which do you think are more effective: formal or informal meetings?

Candidate: Make your choice and give reasons. Informal meetings could be more effective because they are less rigid and the participants may feel free to express their views. Formal meetings, on the other hand, are better organized.

Examiner: What is the role of the chairperson in a meeting?

Candidate: Most meetings require a chairperson in order to control and direct the proceedings. They carry the authority to keep order and maintain progress in line with the agenda.

Examiner: What are the personal qualities that chairmen need?

Candidate: Authority: The chair will need to maintain control to ensure that progress is made in line with the schedule - as defined in the agenda.

Flexibility: Following an agenda does not always imply unquestioning devotion to it. For example, if an unplanned deviation could produce a clarification or the bonding together of meeting participants, then this might represent a very effective strategy.

Impartiality: It is important that the chair supports an equal and fair consideration of all sides of the argument. This can be especially difficult where the chair is privately on one side of the debate.

Maturity: the chair must be able to accept and work with a broad cross section of personalities. They should view each meeting without too much preconception as to how individuals will act and react, but be able to respond as the need arises.

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Task 4

ENTREPRENEURSHIP

Examiner: What qualities does an entrepreneur need?

Candidate:

o knowledge of the domain o good managerial skills

o self-confidence

o willing to take risk

Examiner: What is the role of the business plan?

Candidate:

o keeps objectives clear

o helps when applying for a bank loan

o allows to identify possible weaknesses

o keeps record of business development


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